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Which way has the meaning of …

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Which way has the meaning of the term Hindustan changed over the centuries
  • 2 answers

Shripad B 3 years, 9 months ago

Minhaj-i-Siraj, a chronicler who wrote in Persian, he meant the areas of Punjab, Haryana and the lands between the Ganga and Yamuna. He used the term in a political sense for lands that were a part of the dominions of the Delhi Sultan. The areas included in this term shifted with the extent of the Sultanate but the term never included south India. By contrast, in the early sixteenth century Babur used Hindustan to describe the geography, the fauna and the culture of the inhabitants of the subcontinent. As we will see later in the chapter, this was somewhat similar to the way the fourteenth-century poet Amir Khusrau used the word “Hind”. While the idea of a geographical and cultural entity like “India” did exist, the term “Hindustan” did not carry the political and national meanings which we associate with it today.

Yogita Ingle 3 years, 9 months ago

The meaning of the term ‘Hindustan’ has eventually changed over the past centuries. Today, the term ‘Hindustan’ is referred to denote India. But during the 13th century, the term was used by Minhaj-i-Siraj – a chronicler (in a political sense) of lands that belonged to the Delhi Sultan. During the 14th century, the term ‘Hind’ was used by Amir Khusrau to refer to the culture and people of the Indus river. Whereas, during the early 16th century, Babar used the term ‘Hindustan’ to describe the culture, geography and fauna of the inhabitants of the sub-continent.

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