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I am writing difficult question so be careful while writing answer First of all a trasitive relation is when, If a Relation in any arbitary set A, if (a, b) € R and (b, c) € R implies that (a, c) € R, for all (a, b, c) € A Let consider a set A = {1,2,3} and a Relation R defined on set A as follow: R = {(1,1), (1,2), (2,1)} Let assume that a is 1 b is 2 c is 1 Now. (a, b) € R means (1,2) € R And. (b, c) € R means (2,1) € R Implies (a, c) € R means (1,1) € R So this must be transitive relation, BUT IT IS NOT. WHY? *I have no time so please answer the question as soon as possible if u can

Posted by Advait Gaur 5 years, 6 months ago

CBSE > Class 12 > Mathematics

4 answers

Khushi Varshney 5 years, 6 months ago

YES ,ADVAIT IT'S NOT TRANSITIVE...It's bcoz you have to check transitivity from all the angles...I mean to say that you need not to fix the values of a,b,c as 1,2,1 or anything else..You should also check that (2,1)and (1,2) are here in R but not (2,2).that's why it's not transitive... HOPING,NOW YOU COULD UNDERSTAND WELL....

Advait Gaur 5 years, 6 months ago

It is non transitive. Plz refer https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3573414/why-isnt-1-1-1-2-2-1-transitive-relation/3573423?noredirect=1#comment7349612_3573423

Raman Kant 5 years, 6 months ago

Who said it's non transitive?

Mahesh M 5 years, 6 months ago

Its transitive only

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