40 men take 8 days to …

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Posted by Ravi Singh 5 years, 4 months ago
- 3 answers
Gaurav Seth 5 years, 4 months ago
let x be the no. of men
income of 1 man in 1 day=2000/(40*8)
income of 1 man in 2 days=2*2000/(40*8)=25/2
income of x men in 2 days=(25/2)*x
given (25/2)*x=200
or x=400/25=16
ans 16 men
Or
Number of workers*Rate*Time=Total Earning
Since the rate is constant,
Yogita Ingle 5 years, 4 months ago
let x be the no. of men
income of 1 man in 1 day=2000/(40*8)
income of 1 man in 2 days=2*2000/(40*8)=25/2
income of x men in 2 days=(25/2)*x
given (25/2)*x=200
or x=400/25=16
ans 16 men
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Ujjawalsingh Singh 5 years, 4 months ago
0Thank You