We know, that the Henry's law …

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We know, that the Henry's law states that P= KH. x .......(where x is mole fraction)...So my question is that,.. is it always true for mole fraction only???????.......Give the answer with reason

Posted by Aman Kumar 6 years, 6 months ago

CBSE > Class 12 > Chemistry

6 answers

Aman Kumar 6 years, 6 months ago

Ohk....thanks BTW?

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Ďãřşháñăã Yadav ? ? ? 6 years, 6 months ago

? ? ? aesa hai ager ye question tumhari khud ki side se hai toh meri maano jesa hai rehne do.... as ye tumhara dimag hai bahut kuch soch ra hoga.... baaki book ke hisab se ye question aaya hai toh ek baar Google ker lo. ? baaki concern to higher baad mein mujhe bhe bta Dena answer. ?

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Aman Kumar 6 years, 6 months ago

Yaah...ur answer is absolutely correct but..I want ask that kya henry's law mai hum mole fraction ke jagah pe molality ya molarity nhi ho sakta???.....as all these molality , molarity nd mole fraction are use to check concentration in a solution...

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Ďãřşháñăã Yadav ? ? ? 6 years, 6 months ago

but if it's wrong then surely inform the correct one. ?

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Ďãřşháñăã Yadav ? ? ? 6 years, 6 months ago

might be this will be the answer

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Ďãřşháñăã Yadav ? ? ? 6 years, 6 months ago

The most commonly form of Henry law states that - - - The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in solution. i. e, P=kH X. as mention in ur question. so in this case we considered Raoults law which is a special case of Henry's law . if we compare the eq. of Henry law and Raoults law it can be seen that the partial pressure of volatile component or gas is directly pro. to it's mole fraction in the solution. only the kH differ from P°A thus, from this we conclude that it is true for mole fraction only.

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