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If the (m)th term of ap be 1/n and (n)th term be 1/m .then show that its (mn)th term is 1

Posted by Zeeshan Younis 6 years, 10 months ago

CBSE > Class 10 > Mathematics

1 answers

Ashish Chaudhary 6 years, 10 months ago

a+(m-1)d=1/n (i) & a+(n-1)d=1/m (ii) sub eq (ii) from (i) we get (m-n)d=1/n-1/m therefore ,d=1/mn put d value in (i) we get , a=1/mn ,see how,a+(m-1)1/mn=1/n , a+1/n-1/mn=1/n , a=1/mn , now, 1/mn+(mn-1)1/mn=1 , proved,?

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