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Yogita Ingle 5 years, 4 months ago
From the value of sin 0, we will obtain the value of sin 180.
We know that the exact value of sin 0 degree is 0.
So, Sin 180 degree is +(sin 0) which is equal to +(0)
Therefore, the value of sin 180 degrees = 0.
The value of sin pi can be derived from some other trigonometric angles and functions like sine and cosine functions from the <a href="https://byjus.com/maths/trigonometry-table/">trigonometry table</a>.
It is known that,
180° – 0° = 180° ———– (1)
270° – 90° = 180°———— (2)
Sine 180 Degree Derivation: Method 1
Now we can use the above expression (1) in terms of sine functions
From the supplementary angle identity,
Sin A = Sin (180° – A )
Therefore,
Sin ( 180° – A ) = Sin A
Sin ( 180° – 0° ) = Sin 0°
Sin 180° = 0 [ Since the value Sin 0° is 0]
Posted by Gaurav Kumar 5 years, 4 months ago
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Posted by Rippen Sidhu 5 years, 4 months ago
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Gaurav Seth 5 years, 4 months ago
Step -by -step explanation:
tan20° tan40° tan80°
= 2sin20°sin40°sin80°/2cos20°cos40°cos80°
= {cos(20°-40°)-cos(20°+40°)}sin80°/{cos(20°+40°)+cos(20°-40°)}cos80°
= (cos20°-cos60°)sin80°/(cos60°+cos20°)cos80°
= {2cos20°sin80°-2(1/2)sin80°}/{2(1/2)cos80°+2cos20°cos80°} [∵,cos60°=1/2]
= {sin(20°+80°)-sin(20°-80°)-sin80°}/{cos80°+cos(20°+80°)+cos(20°-80°)}
= (sin100°+sin60°-sin80°)/(cos80°+cos100°+cos60°)
= {2cos(100°+80°)/2sin(100°-80°)/2 +√3/2}/{2cos(100°+80°)/2cos(100°-80°)/2+1/2} [∵, sin60°=√3/2 and cos60°=1/2]
= (2cos90°sin10°+√3/2)/(2cos90°cos10°+1/2)
= (√3/2)/(1/2) [∵, cos90°=0]
= √3
= tan60°
Now, tan30°tan60° = *= 1
OR

Posted by Aditya Raj 5 years, 4 months ago
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Vasu Rajput. 5 years, 4 months ago
Posted by Aryan Singh 5 years, 4 months ago
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Gaurav Seth 5 years, 4 months ago
3sinP+4cosQ=6 -----(1)
4sinQ+3cosP=1 -----(2)
square and add both the equations,
so we get,
p+q=150
now apply theorem of sum of angles of triangle,
P+Q+R=180
we know that, P+Q=150
so,
R=180°-150°
R=30°
Therefore,
R=π/6
OR
The correct answer is:
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Yogita Ingle 5 years, 4 months ago
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Yogita Ingle 5 years, 4 months ago
Yogita Ingle 5 years, 4 months ago
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Gaurav Seth 5 years, 4 months ago
QUESTION: There are 6 marbles in a box with numbers from 1 to 6 marked on each of them.
(i) What is the probability of drawing a marble with number 2?
aNSWER
Total number of possible outcome = 6
(That is 1, 2, 3, ,4 ,5 and 6)
Find the probability that it is a "2" at the second draw:
There are 5 marbles left after 1 marble is drawn:
Total number of favourable outcome = 1
(That is the number 2)
P(2) = 1/5
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