No products in the cart.

Ask questions which are clear, concise and easy to understand.

Ask Question
  • 5 answers

Sajid Md 5 years ago

1/2

Abhijith Nair 5 years ago

1/2
Cos60° = ½ = sin30°

Muskan Singh 5 years ago

It's answer is 1/2 not Hii..

Yash Singh 5 years ago

Hi
  • 5 answers
Kya kabhi parents and children equal ho sakten h . Aaise hi bhagwan aur ham bhi kabhi equal nahi ho sakten. Kyounki ounhone hame banaya h aur ham khud ko banane wale ke kabhi barabar nahi ho sakte kaise bhi. Vo parmatma h aur ham kewal aatma.

Tec Om 5 years ago

no one can destroy time time can destroy everything

5 years ago

Insaan kyu bi kr skte ? Agar mai kahu bhagwaan hi sb kr skte hai to insaan kyu ni ? Equality kaha gyi ???
Only God can destroy time. Kaal se bhi jo paren hai mahakal vo ise destroy kar sakten hain.
Time cannot be destroyed because we are bound to move with time. But time can be wasted by simply sitting without thinking and looking at the clock continuously . And by more sleeping and wasting time in social networking sites.
  • 4 answers
Yugo Yugo Tak tapasya karne ke baad bhi koi time ko destroy nahi kar sakte . Kewal bhagwan kar sakten hai kyounki ounhone time ko bhi banaya h.
Humans are suffering more beacuse they have welcomed that suffering, they are not Fighting against it.

5 years ago

False, humans suffer most!
Life is not a hell if you see clearly it a a very beautiful gift of God. On the other hand if we se other species, animals , birds ,trees etc . They are more unhappy , scared, or malaise then us but they didn't complain for their life just not because they are unable to speak but they know it's value more than human beings. In really, after so many problems they are living and can be called as lived .But mostly all lived humans beings are dead because of their poor and bad works or thinking.
  • 2 answers

5 years ago

35.5 out of 40 but I lost in science chemistry and physics

5 years ago

Mine are done and results also declared
  • 5 answers

? S. S. ? 5 years ago

Mention not !...?

5 years ago

Yes I got it thanks and sorry also for challenge

? S. S. ? 5 years ago

No legendary you're wrong.... the correct formula for finding proper subset is 2ⁿ-1 as Yogita mam has written.... And the formula 2ⁿ you're saying is for finding no. of subsets.... I hope u understand and if u still have any doubt u can ask me....

5 years ago

Wrong formula for number of ekements I challenge you mam its 2^n only

Yogita Ingle 5 years ago

The number of proper subsets of any set is given by the formula  2n -1 where  n  is the number of elements in the set.

Here n = 5

25 -1  =  32 - 1  = 31

  • 1 answers

Kalki Kalki 5 years ago

Simple means easy
  • 4 answers

Kalki Kalki 5 years ago

Sin30=1/2
Sin30=1/2

Tec Om 5 years ago

sin30=cos60 and sin60=cos30

Yogita Ingle 5 years ago

sin30 = 1/2

  • 1 answers

Yogita Ingle 5 years ago

A permutation is defined as an arrangement in a definite order of a number of objects taken some or all at a time. Counting permutations are merely counting the number of ways in which some or all objects at a time are rearranged. The convenient expression to denote permutation is defined as “ nP”.

The permutation formula is given by,

Pr = n!/(n-r)! ; 0 ≤ r ≤ n
  • 1 answers

Gaurav Seth 5 years ago

We know that, Three lines are said to be concurrent, if they pass through a common point which also means that the point of intersection of any two lines always lies on the third line.

Now, the three given equations of line are:

2x + y − 3 = 0 ... (1)

5x + ky − 3 = 0 ... (2)

and 3x − y − 2 = 0 ... (3)

Firstly, we will solve the equations (1) and (3) and find out the value of x and y. The corresponding value of x and y will also satisfy the equation (2) as all the given lines are concurrent.

Therefore, on adding (1) and (3), we get

2x + y − 3 + 3x − y − 2 = 0

⇒ 5x - 5 = 0

⇒ x = 1

On putting value of x in (1), we get

2(1) + y − 3 =0

⇒ y - 1 = 0

⇒ y = 1

So, the point of intersection of two lines is (1, 1).

Now, this point will also satisfy the equation (2).

Therefore, on putting (x, y) = (1, 1) in (2), we get

5(1) + k(1) − 3 = 0

⇒ k + 2 = 0

⇒ k = - 2

 

  • 1 answers

Kalki Kalki 5 years ago

x⁴-16=(x²+4)(x²-4) , so the value of x is (x²-4)= x²=4 , x=√4 so the value of x is -2,-1,0,1,2.
  • 3 answers

Arpit Mishra 5 years ago

Ya

Sakshi Jagtap 5 years ago

kendriya vidyalaya school

Saloni ? 5 years ago

Kv....mtlb ??
  • 1 answers

5 years ago

Let p(k) = n(n+1)(n+2) divisivle by 6
For n = 1 ,
p(k) is true
Let for n = k ,p(k) is true
For n = k+1:
(k+1)(k+2)(k+3)
k(k+1)(k+2)(k+3)/k divisible by 6
So by mathematical induction , statement is true for all n€N
  • 5 answers

Sahil Singh 5 years ago

Chalo gi ? ? ? ? ? bye

5 years ago

Dont forget I know all your details I am quite here but observing everything

5 years ago

Nhi hua to social media pe viral kr dunga ?

5 years ago

Dont worry sb hoga

Sahil Singh 5 years ago

Acha Mari toh account block hi nhi hue???
9-1
  • 1 answers

Sahil Singh 5 years ago

8
  • 5 answers

5 years ago

Number mne de diya ab number dial krne se o drte hai wo bolrw wah wah nach na jane angan teda

Sahil Singh 5 years ago

Ye bass ye hi bol layak ha Fattgi iss ki....

5 years ago

Abusing bnd krlw fir kehra hu all agrees with me I never abuse you and even anyone aur tum aesi faltu ki baate krte ho aay bade

Sakshi Jagtap 5 years ago

abhe no. dene ko bhi darta kya tu #Legendary......so pity

Sahil Singh 5 years ago

Fattgi Teri.......

myCBSEguide App

myCBSEguide

Trusted by 1 Crore+ Students

Test Generator

Test Generator

Create papers online. It's FREE.

CUET Mock Tests

CUET Mock Tests

75,000+ questions to practice only on myCBSEguide app

Download myCBSEguide App