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Why does Ozymandias refer to himself …

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Why does Ozymandias refer to himself as king of kings??

Posted by Eeya Modi 6 years, 4 months ago

CBSE > Class 10 > English Communicative (101)

5 answers

Ibrahim Salaria 6 years, 4 months ago

Ozymandias is filled with vanity and pride for his might. •°•, he uses the hyperbole king of kings.

??Amrit ???????? ????Thakur???????? 6 years, 4 months ago

Because he thought that it was her big work may not do by any one so it is says as king of kings

#Itz_Most_Innocent_Boy_Ravi (Only_1_Luv_Aggu???) 6 years, 4 months ago

Bcz he considered himself as very powerful and brave..He was very arrogant and he felt that Noone has the power to fight with him

Harshil Chhajer 6 years, 4 months ago

Ozymandias refers to himself as king of kings because he had a vast empire and he had conquered many dyansties and kingdoms than any king would have ever imagined this the reason why ozyamndias refers to himself as king of kings

Eeya Modi 6 years, 4 months ago

Koe to help kr do

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