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Price elasticity of demand for two …

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Price elasticity of demand for two goods X and Y are 0 and -1 which of the two goods is more elastic and why ?
  • 2 answers

Yash Gupta 7 years, 11 months ago

Good Y with ed=1 because ed=0 means that good X is perfectly inelastic i.e. not effected by chane in price

Pari Jain 7 years, 11 months ago

I think -1 becoz here the negative sign only shows inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded not the negative value
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