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  • 3 answers

Avishka - 1 year, 5 months ago

1N=10^5dyne 5 N=5*10^5 dyne

Tika Ram 1 year, 6 months ago

50^5

Naman Gupta 1 year, 7 months ago

We know that Newton is in MKS while Dyne is in CGS N2 = N1 U1/ U2 N1 5 N2 x U1 Mks U2 Cgs Putting it 5* kg m sec-2/ g Cm sec-2 (Sec cut) N2= 5* kg/g* m/Cm 5 *1000g/g *100cm/cm 5*1000*100 500000 5*10power5
  • 2 answers

Shinjini Ghosh 1 year, 7 months ago

I think reading ncert for now is enough

Chahat Kumar 1 year, 7 months ago

Notes please
  • 2 answers

Anshika Saini 1 year, 6 months ago

Axha

Krishna Chaudhary 1 year, 7 months ago

YE thoDa Hard LaGg rHa Haii 😅... AnsWer bTa doH Bss
Ty
  • 1 answers

Swastik Singh 1 year, 7 months ago

Welcome
  • 5 answers

Pari Jain 1 year, 6 months ago

400cm

Aadil Reshie 1 year, 7 months ago

Four hundred centi meters

Astha Patel 1 year, 7 months ago

400 cm

Swastik Singh 1 year, 7 months ago

400 cm

Kartik Kushwaha 1 year, 7 months ago

400 cm
  • 2 answers

Jagdish Shukla 1 year, 7 months ago

Answer is 5

Ayush Singh 1 year, 7 months ago

Sghcuedyeydydhtwydhbdhehh hdf.fgsygdeur hdyydfufurufduydfhdhddhhddhhdhdhddhdhdhdudhudeyeuueeye6eydyhhnctirudhhdfjdhhddhdhdhdhhhdhhddhddxhcggfyjghigryre
  • 1 answers

Arnav Gupta 1 year, 7 months ago

Because resistors are conductors
  • 0 answers
  • 3 answers

Aashna Meena 1 year, 5 months ago

nh/2π

Kripa Shankar Gupta 1 year, 7 months ago

Torque

Jupile Chenoha 1 year, 7 months ago

hhhhhhi
  • 1 answers

Preeti Dabral 1 year, 8 months ago

According to Newton the change in pressure & volume in air is an isothermal process.
Therefore he calculated,v =√(p/p) on substituting the require value he found, the velocity of sound was not in close agreement with the observation value. Then Laplace pointed out the error in Newton’s formula. According to Laplace the change in pressure and volume is an adiabatic process. So he calculated the value of sound as, v =√(yr/p) on putting require value he found velocity of sound as 332m/s very closed to observed theory.

  • 1 answers

Preeti Dabral 1 year, 8 months ago

You need to know the equation of motion. The force for the pendulum is given by F=−kx. Newtons equation tell you F=ma=mx¨. So you need to solve

mx¨=−kx.(1)

You know that the solution will be of oscillatory form. So you set x=Acos(2πt/T) and you want to obtain T. Plugging this ansatz into the equation (1), you obtain

−m(2π)2T2Acos(2πt/T)=−kAcos(2πt/T).

You see that the equation is fulfilled if

m(2π)2T2=k.

Solving for T, you obtain the result.

  • 1 answers
If no external forces acts on a system of particles then the momentum of the system remains conserved.
  • 4 answers

Preeti Dabral 1 year, 8 months ago

6

Shinjini Ghosh 1 year, 7 months ago

6

Harsh Maurya 1 year, 8 months ago

Ans=6

M.S.Bhati Bhati 1 year, 8 months ago

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  • 1 answers

Preeti Dabral 1 year, 8 months ago

Speed of a transverse wave on a stretched string. The wave velocity through a medium depends on its inertial and elastic properties. So the transverse wave through a stretched string is determined by two factors:

  1. Tension T in the string is a measure in the string. Without tension no can propagate in the string. of elasticity disturbance Dimensions of T = [Force] = [MLT 2]
  2. Mass per unit length or linear mass density m of the string so that the string can store kinetic energy.
    Dimensions of  {tex}m=\frac{[\text { Mass }]}{[\text { Length }]}=\left[\mathrm{ML}^{-1}\right]{/tex}
    Now, dimensions of ratio {tex}\frac{T}{m}=\frac{\left[\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{ML}^{-1}\right]}=\left[\mathrm{L}^{2} \mathrm{~T}^{-2}\right]{/tex}
    As the speed v has the dimensions [LT-1] so we can express v in terms of T and m as {tex}v=C \sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}{/tex}
    From detailed mathematical analysis! or from experiments, the dimensionless constant C = 1. Hence the speed of transverse waves on a stretched string is given by
    {tex}v=\sqrt{\frac{T}{m}}{/tex}
  • 1 answers

Preeti Dabral 1 year, 8 months ago

Simple harmonic motion is an oscillatory motion in which the particle's acceleration and force are directly proportional to its displacement from the mean location at each point. It is a special case of oscillatory motion.

  • 2 answers

Preeti Dabral 1 year, 8 months ago

Bernoulli's principle states that an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in static pressure or a decrease in the fluid's potential energy.
To prove Bernoulli's theorem, consider a fluid of negligible viscosity moving with laminar flow. as shown in Figure.
Let the velocity, pressure and area of the fluid cloumn be p1, v1 and A1 at Q and p2, v2 and A2 at R. Let the  volume bounded by Q and R move to S and T where QS = L1, and RT = L2

If the fluid is incompressible:
The work done by the pressure difference per unit volume = gain in kinetic energy per unit volume + gain in potential energy per unit volume. Now:
A1L1 = A2L2
Work done is given by:
W = F {tex}\times{/tex} d = p {tex}\times{/tex} volume
{tex}\Rightarrow{/tex} Wnet = p1 - p2
{tex}\Rightarrow{/tex} K.E = {tex}\frac{1}{2}{/tex}mv2 = {tex}\frac{1}{2}{/tex}V {tex}\rho{/tex}v2 = {tex}\frac{1}{2}{/tex}{tex}\rho{/tex}v2 ({tex}\because{/tex} V = 1)
{tex}\Rightarrow{/tex} K.Egained = {tex}\frac{1}{2} \rho\left(v_{2}^{2}-v_{1}^{2}\right){/tex}
P1 + {tex}\frac{1}{2} \rho v_{1}^{2}{/tex} + {tex}\rho{/tex}gh1 = P2 + {tex}\frac{1}{2} \rho v_{2}^{2}{/tex} + {tex}\rho{/tex}gh2
{tex}\therefore{/tex} P + {tex}\frac{1}{2} \rho v^{2}{/tex} + {tex}\rho{/tex}gh = const.
For a horizontal tube
{tex}\because{/tex} h1 = h2
{tex}\therefore{/tex} P + {tex}\frac{1}{2} \rho v^{2}{/tex} = const.
Therefore, this proves Bernoulli's theorem. Here we can see that if there is an increase in velocity there must be a decrease in pressure and vice versa.

Mohd Faisal 1 year, 8 months ago

Thanks you
  • 0 answers
  • 2 answers

Tannul Sharma 1 year, 3 months ago

Genus of two species of poisonous trees and shurbs belong to the sub family of the pea family and greenish brown or redish brown .

Shainki Varma Varma Ji 1 year, 3 months ago

What do you know about the laburnum tree
  • 4 answers

Priya Nagar 1 year, 8 months ago

10^-5

Shiv Lal Yadav 1 year, 8 months ago

1dyne =10^5N

Àñúpómá Dóléy 1 year, 8 months ago

ans

Ashutosh Sharma 1 year, 8 months ago

1 dyne = 10^5 N
  • 2 answers

Tannul Sharma 1 year, 8 months ago

1 dyne = 10^ 5 N

Pratik Haraka 1 year, 8 months ago

1 dyne = _________ N
  • 0 answers
  • 2 answers

Aashna Meena 1 year, 5 months ago

Join the both tail of vector then draw a line from the resultant is a line originated from the tail tail point

Ashutosh Sharma 1 year, 8 months ago

Join two side from tail to tail as two adjacent sides of parallelogram
  • 1 answers

Preeti Dabral 1 year, 8 months ago

One sixth

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