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  • 3 answers

Np Harshavadhan 6 years, 9 months ago

see the answer at the last pages

Vansh Prajapati 6 years, 10 months ago

Ab kya hoga

Danger Lion 6 years, 10 months ago

Which subject
  • 1 answers

It'S Me ? 6 years, 10 months ago

Math ka paper nahi hai kal?
  • 1 answers

Np Harshavadhan 6 years, 9 months ago

x=0 or xis indeterminate
  • 0 answers
  • 1 answers

Sara Likitha 6 years, 10 months ago

u did not complete yourmaths exam
  • 1 answers

Khushi ???Be Smiling 6 years, 10 months ago

1.414....
  • 0 answers
  • 1 answers

Sia ? 6 years, 4 months ago

We have 4n  where n = 1, 2, 3, 4.......
if n = 1 then 4n = 41 = 4
if n = 2 then 4n = 42 = 16 and so on
If a number ends with zero then it is divisible by 5.
Here, 4 and 16 are not divisible by 5.
Therefore, 4n can never end with zero.

  • 2 answers

Lustig Yashu? 6 years, 10 months ago

Ye..kya hai...

Vanshaayu Prajapati 6 years, 10 months ago

What
  • 3 answers

Aman ??? 6 years, 10 months ago

If it is a 5 rupee coin than prob. is 1/2 and if not than 0

Mr. King ??? 6 years, 10 months ago

Brother i think your question is wrong

Tenzin Deki 6 years, 10 months ago

agar sikka 5 ka hai toh jitna bhi toss karo 5 hi ayega... isse ek rupaya bhi nahi bharega
  • 0 answers
  • 2 answers

Puja Sahoo? 6 years, 10 months ago

Nt posdible... bt agar set-2 ata meri traf to pka full bt, unfortunately nhi tha?

Aa Bisht 6 years, 10 months ago

I will get 90 plus
  • 1 answers

Sia ? 6 years, 4 months ago

Let n = 4q + 1 (an odd integer)
{tex}\therefore \quad n ^ { 2 } - 1 = ( 4 q + 1 ) ^ { 2 } - 1{/tex}
{tex}= 16 q ^ { 2 } + 1 + 8 q - 1 \quad \text { Using Identity } ( a + b ) ^ { 2 } = a ^ { 2 } + 2 a b + b ^ { 2 }{/tex}
{tex}= 16{q^2} + 8q{/tex}
{tex}= 8 \left( 2 q ^ { 2 } + q \right){/tex}
= 8m, which is divisible by 8.

  • 2 answers

Yash Patil 6 years, 10 months ago

it has happened with most of students

S Ayush Kumar 6 years, 10 months ago

It was too easy but also lenghthy and even i miss some questions unattempted.
  • 4 answers

Jashan Benipal 6 years, 9 months ago

Okk

Devanshi Grover 6 years, 10 months ago

Easy .........

Gayathry S 6 years, 10 months ago

set 1 d section has 2 super questions..

Harsimran Singh ? 6 years, 10 months ago

Yes...easy tha..
  • 1 answers

Anushka Jugran_? 6 years, 10 months ago

????
  • 1 answers

Np Harshavadhan 6 years, 10 months ago

x=4/3
  • 0 answers
  • 0 answers
  • 1 answers

Sia ? 6 years, 4 months ago

n- n = n (n- 1) = n (n - 1) (n + 1) 
Whenever a number is divided by 3, the remainder obtained is either 0 or 1 or 2.
∴ n = 3p or 3p + 1 or 3p + 2, where p is some integer.
If n = 3p, then n is divisible by 3.
If n = 3p + 1, then n – 1 = 3p + 1 –1 = 3p is divisible by 3.
If n = 3p + 2, then n + 1 = 3p + 2 + 1 = 3p + 3 = 3(p + 1) is divisible by 3.
So, we can say that one of the numbers among n, n – 1 and n + 1 is always divisible by 3.
⇒ n (n – 1) (n + 1) is divisible by 3. 
Similarly, whenever a number is divided by 2, the remainder obtained is 0 or 1.
∴ n = 2q or 2q + 1, where q is some integer.
If n = 2q, then n is divisible by 2.
If n = 2q + 1, then n – 1 = 2q + 1 – 1 = 2q is divisible by 2 and n + 1 = 2q + 1 + 1 = 2q + 2 = 2 (q + 1) is divisible by 2.
So, we can say that one of the numbers among n, n – 1 and n + 1 is always divisible by 2.
⇒ n (n – 1) (n + 1) is divisible by 2.
Since, n (n – 1) (n + 1) is divisible by 2 and 3.
∴ n (n-1) (n+1) = n- n is divisible by 6.( If a number is divisible by both 2 and 3 , then it is divisible by 6)

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