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  • 2 answers

Tanya Hans 4 years, 6 months ago

thts not a full answer

Shalu Singh 5 years, 5 months ago

As there is no information about the new ratio hence the new ratio will be 3:2 because akhil has now no share. Also to distribute the goodwill we need to find out the gaining ratio = new ratio-old ratio. Akhil's share in goodwill = 1/6*120000 = 20000 Amit's gain = 3/5-3/6 = 3/30 Amrit's gain = 2/5-2/6 = 2/30 Amit's share in goodwill = 3/30*120000 = 12000 Amrit's share in goodwill = 2/30*120000 = 8000 Journal entry: Amit's capital a/c dr. 12000 Amrit's capital a/c dr. 8000 To akhil's capital a/c cr. 20000
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Shalu Singh 5 years, 5 months ago

Let total profit be 1 Share given to C = 9/21 Remaining share = 1-9/21 = 12/21 Now the old partners will share the remaining share in their profit sharing ratio. A's new share = 21/30*12/21 = 2/5 B's new share = 9/30*12/21 = 6/35 Thus final profit sharing ratio will be: 2/5:6/35:9/21 As the denominator needs to be same hence 42:18:45÷105 = 42:18:45 = 14:6:15 ans
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Shalu Singh 5 years, 5 months ago

P's old share = 5/8, p's surrendered share = 5/8*1/2 = 5/16 P's new share = 5/8-5/16 = 5/16 Q's old share = 3/8, Q's surrendered share = 3/8*1/4 = 3/32 Q's new share = 3/8-3/32 = 9/32 R's new share = surrendered share of P = 5/16 Z's new share = surrendered share of Q = 3/32 New profit sharing ratio = 5/16:9/32:5/16:3/32 = 10:9:10:3÷32 = 10:9:10:3 ans..
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Gaurav Seth 5 years, 5 months ago

 Guarantee A partner may be admitted into the firm with a guarantee of minimum profit, which means that if his share of profit is less than that of guaranteed profit, then he would be paid the guaranteed share of profit.
The deficiency (difference between guaranteed profit and actual profit) is borne by partner or partners who have guaranteed the profit in agreed ratio.
Different conditions regarding guarantee of profit are:
(i) Guarantee by the firm to a partner.
(ii) Guarantee by one partner to another partner.
(iii) Guarantee given by the partner to the firm.
(iv) Simultaneous guarantee by the firm to the partner and by the partner to the firm. Steps Involved in the Distribution of Profits under Guarantee Arrangement
Step 1 Calculate the actual share of profit/loss of guaranteed partner.
Step 2 Calculate the guaranteed amount.
Step 3 Calculate the amount of deficiency
Deficiency = Guaranteed Amount – Actual Share of Profit
Step 4 Distribute the deficiency among the guaranteeing partners in their guaranteeing ratio.
Step 5 Distribute the actual profits/losses among all the partners in their profit sharing ratio as if there is no guarantee arrangement.
Step 6 Recover share of deficiency (as per step 3) from the guaranteeing partners and give credit for the same to guaranteed partner.

  • 3 answers

Megha Gupta 5 years, 5 months ago

Atleast 2 partners

Priyanshi Kumari 5 years, 5 months ago

at least 2 persons are necessary to form a partnership

Gaurav Seth 5 years, 5 months ago

2

Section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act 1932 defines partnership as the 'relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all  or any of them acting for all'. In order to form a partnership, there should be at least two persons coming together for a common goal.

  • 1 answers

Yash Kumar 5 years, 5 months ago

A B and C--old--1:1:1:1 c{sac}=1/3×1/4=1/12 D{sac}=1/3×1/4=1/12 E{gaining partner}=1/12+1/12=2/12 Journal entries... {1}e capital a/c dr.50000 To c capital a/c 25000 To d capital a/c 2500p {Being goodwill adjusted} {2}e capital a/c 100000 To a capital 20000 To b capital 20000 Toc capital 20000 To d capital20000 {Being c share of goodwill credited to old p's capital zindagi a/c}
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Priyanshi Kumari 5 years, 5 months ago

A cost sheet is a statement prepared at periodical intervals of time, which accumulates all the elements of the costs associated with a product or production job. It is used to compile the margin earned on a product or job and forms the basis for the setting of prices on similar products in the future.

Gaurav Seth 5 years, 5 months ago

A cost sheet is a statement that shows the various components of total cost for a product and shows previous data for comparison. You can deduce the ideal selling price of a product based on the cost sheet.

A Cost Sheet depicts the following facts:

  1. Total cost and cost per unit for a product.
  2. The various elements of cost such as prime cost, factory cost, production cost, cost of goods sold, total cost, etc.
  3. Percentage of every expenditure to the total cost.
  4. Compare the cost of any two periods and ascertain the inefficiencies if any.
  5. Information to management for cost control
  6. Calculate and summarize the total cost of the product.
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Gaurav Seth 5 years, 5 months ago

Capital Turnover Ratio or Net Assets Turnover Ratio:

It measures the entity’s ability to generate sales or cost of goods sold per rupee of long-term investment. A higher ratio indicates better utilization of long-term funds of owners and the lenders. Thus,

Capital Turnover Ratio = Sales or Cost of Goods sold/Net Assets

Net Assets or Capital employed  = Net Fixed Assets + Net Current Assets

Net Current Assets = Current Assets – Current Liabilities.

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Shalu Singh 5 years, 5 months ago

Always see in the question that the commission is charged before or after in this case the commission is charged after then you need to calculate it by 10/100+rate*profit. The profit here will be 250000-8000(interest on loan of asim)-11000(interest on loan of nihar) = 231000 Now, commission = 231000*10/110= 21000 answer

Gaurav Seth 5 years, 5 months ago

Q : Aseem and nihar started business on 1st april 2019 with capital of Rs 300000 and Rs 200000 respectively . according to the partnership deed, nihar is to get salary of Rs 5000 per month aseem is to get 10% comission on profit after allowing salary to nihar and intrest is to be allowed on capital @ 6%p.a . profit sharing ratio between the two partner is 3:2 . during the year , the firm earned profit of Rs 250000 Aseem had given loan of Rs 100000to the firm on 1april 2019 intrest on loan allowed @8% nihar was given loan of Rs 200000 on which intrest was charged Rs11000. Manager was to be allowed comission of Rs 3000 .make profit and loss appropration account 

Answer :

Click on the given link:

<a href="https://www.amu.ac.in/emp/studym/100010676.31.03.pdf">https://www.amu.ac.in/emp/studym/100010676.31.03.pdf</a>

 

  • 1 answers

Gaurav Seth 5 years, 5 months ago

Format of Fluctuating Capital Account Method

Capital A/c

Date Particulars A B Date Particulars A B
  Drawings and interest on Drawings       Opening Balance or Initial Investment    
  Loss transferred from Profit and Loss A/c       Addition of capital, Interest on Capital, Salary, Commission or any other remuneration    
  Closing Balance       Profit transferred from Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c  
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Gaurav Seth 5 years, 5 months ago

Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c

Date Particulars Amount Date Particulars Amount
  To Interest On CapitalA/c     By Profit And Loss A/c (Profit transferred from P&L A/c)  
  To Partner’s Salary A/c     By Interest on Drawings A/c  
  To Reserves A/c        
  To Partner’s Commission A/c        
  To Profit transferred to Partner’s Capital/Current Account    

Bhavika Shekhawat 5 years, 5 months ago

Ue konsa account hota h
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Yash Kumar 5 years, 5 months ago

So , here the balance sheet shows wcr of 50000, from this amount, thereis a permanent liability of 10000. So, (50000-10000)=40000 Now, these 40000 will distribute among painters in equal ratio if question is silent i.e, suppose if workmen is 4 ,then they distribute 40000 in 1:1:1:1 , i.e 10000 each...hope it will help
  • 4 answers

Yash Kumar 5 years, 5 months ago

It will depend on there balance on there A/C , but we all assume that it have dr. Balance , but is also a cr.balace if the cr.side is more , so the asset which we consider asset is also a. Liability ....so it is asset as well as liability , BUT GENERALLY , it is an ASSET.....

Bhavika Shekhawat 5 years, 5 months ago

Asset

Shivani Kumari 5 years, 5 months ago

ASSET

Gaurav Singh Gaur 5 years, 5 months ago

Asset
  • 2 answers

Nitish Agarwal 5 years, 4 months ago

2 is to 1

Simran Morya 5 years, 5 months ago

So the new profit sharing ratio of Xand Z are 2:1
  • 1 answers

Gaurav Seth 5 years, 5 months ago

 

                    PROFIT AND LOSS APPROPRIATION ACCOUNT

 Particulars  Amount  Particulars  Amount
 To Interest on capital 
X= 50,000
To Salary
Y= 30,000
 80,000  By net profit  80,000
 Total  80,000  Total  80,000

Interest on X's capital = 20,00,000*8%=1,60,000

Salary to Y                   = 8000*12          = 96,000

Total                                                        = 2,56,000

Net profits available is less than the appropriations to be made. So,the appropriations are to be made in the ratio of interest and salary i.e 5:3.

  • 1 answers

Harshit Pandit 5 years, 3 months ago

It calculated as number year's purchase of average profits or super-profits...

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