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If coulomb's law involved 1/r^3 dependence …

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If coulomb's law involved 1/r^3 dependence (instead of 1/r^2), then how would gauss's law is not valid here ????? Please explain Sir...

Posted by Aashish Prajapati 4 years, 10 months ago

CBSE > Class 12 > Physics

2 answers

Adeeb Ahmed 4 years, 10 months ago

Beacause if it is r^3 then this becomes volume(3d) instead of area(2d) so the electric flux get affected and if the flux get affected then gauss law is also affected

0Thank You

Abhishek Vishwakarma 4 years, 10 months ago

Gauss' Law gives the number of electric field lines paasing perpendicular through a unit area.So it is independent of Coulomb's Law which gives the magnitude and direction of the electrostatic force.Therefore there would be no effect on gauss law.However the numerical value of flux may change.

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