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Why should ozymandias refer to himself …

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Why should ozymandias refer to himself as king of kings
  • 4 answers

Shashank Sen 6 years, 2 months ago

He had fought and won most of the battles and thought that there is no one to stand in front of him. He defeated all the kings all around his kingdom so he refers himself as king of kings.

Anandni Gupta 6 years, 2 months ago

Write urself

Ashtrix Official 6 years, 2 months ago

Bcz he defeated everyone . it is directly given in book that his terror was so much that in those region no any living irhanism was found and sand were there everywhere . Write urself

Sujal Tiwari 6 years, 2 months ago

Because he defeats all the empires around him
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